HCS/216

ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY II

The Latest Version A+ Study Guide

**********************************************

HCS 216 Entire Course Link

https://hwsell.com/category/hcs-216/

**********************************************

HCS 216 Week 1 Nervous System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Nervous System – Analyzing a Progress Note.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Nervous System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Part 1

Using the following progress note, define the bolded terms within the chart provided.

This patient is being treated in a rehabilitation facility that specializes in neurological disorders.

Progress Note

History of Present Illness: Patient is a 22 y.o. female who was admitted to rehabilitation after an extended stay at University Hospital for treatment of a concussion with no loss of consciousness with subdural hematoma to the frontal lobe and a C1 cervical compression as the result of a motor vehicle accident. She has ongoing complaints of a frontal headache and signs of peripheral neuropathy. There does not appear to be any issue with her memory at this time. An EEG and EMG were performed prior to transfer. Her vital signs have been stable. The patient was admitted to the neurological rehabilitation floor for rehab treatment.

Plan: physical therapy evaluation, occupational therapy evaluation, and speech therapy evaluation.

Impression: concussion with no loss of consciousness, subdural hematoma, CI cervical closed fracture, peripheral neuropathy

Mark Jones Smith, MD

*Do not forget to include the sources for your definitions.

Part 2

Complete the following table using the information in the Impression section of the Progress Note and the Internet. List the appropriate code(s) for the given medical terms and provide a justification explaining why you selected the given medical code(s). An example has been provided for you.

HCS 216 Week 1 Nervous System Poster

Resources: Use your internet browser to search for poster templates.

Imagine you have been asked to give a presentation at a conference for coders and billers. You have decided to create posters to hang around the room as visual aids as you lead your presentation.

You will create four 260- to 350-word posters throughout Weeks One through Four. Each poster will focus on the body system covered for that week.

• Week One: Nervous
• Week Two: Endocrine
• Week Three: Musculoskeletal
• Week Four: Reproductive

Think of your audience when writing your poster; make it informative as well as visually appealing.

Create an informative poster for your presentation.

Address the following in the poster:

• Identify the body system.
• Describe the basic structure and function of the body system.
• Explain the importance of the nervous system to the different body systems.

  • You may choose to connect this discussion to systems learned in Anatomy & Physiology I.
  • Use information found in diagrams/charts located in this week’s reading.

• Describe two common diseases that affect the nervous system.
• Identify the major providers that would treat a patient with the disease discussed above.
• Identify the recommended lab tests for the disease identified above.

Cite at least 2 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

HCS 216 Week 1 Knowledge Checks- Week 1

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Week 1 Knowledge Checks

1.

Which of the following types of cells is nervous tissue composed of besides neurons?

Epithelial cells

Muscle cells

Glial cells

Red blood cells

2.

In the context of impulse conduction, identify an accurate statement.

In an unmyelinated axon, only the sodium and potassium channels at the nodes must open for the action potential to flow through the axon.

In a myelinated axon, every single sodium and potassium channel must open for the action potential to flow through the axon.

One of the characteristics that helps determine the speed of impulse conduction is the presence of a myelin sheath.

The diameter of an axon does not affect the speed of impulse conduction along that axon.

3.

Which of the following statements is true of the internal anatomy of the spinal cord?

The posterior horn of the spinal cord is involved in motor functions, while the anterior horn is involved in sensory functions.

The spinothalamic tract of the spinal cord carries crude touch information to the brain, while the spinocerebellar tract carries information regarding position and posture to the brain.

The corticospinal tract of the spinal cord carries sensory information from the senses to the brain, while the spinothalamic tract carries motor information from the brain to the spinal cord.

The reticulospinal tract of the spinal cord carries fine-touch and vibration information to the brain, while the dorsal column tract carries orders from the brain to motor neurons in the brain stem.

4.

Which part of the brain plays the most important role in balance as well as sensory and motor coordination?

The medulla oblongata

The midbrain

The pons

The cerebellum

5.

Identify an accurate statement about the somatic sensory system.

Somatic sensation includes fine touch, crude touch, vibration, pain, temperature, and body position.

Somatic sensory information enters the spinal cord via the ventral root and synapses with the motor neurons in the dorsal horn.

Somatic sensory information travels first to the somatic sensory cortex before the thalamus and the other parts of the diencephalon.

Pain is recognized before the somatic sensory information integrates with sensation in the somatic sensory association area in the parietal lobe.

6.

Identify a difference between the two systems of the peripheral nervous system: the somatic system and the autonomic system.

The somatic system controls involuntary muscles, while the autonomic system controls voluntary muscles.

The somatic system primarily controls glandular muscles, while the autonomic system primarily controls skeletal muscles.

Unlike the neurons of the autonomic system, the neurons of the somatic system are located in the brain stem.

Unlike the neurons of the autonomic system, the neurons of the somatic system connect directly to muscles.

7.

Which of the following disorders, caused by an autoimmune attack on the peripheral myelin, Schwann cells, or peripheral axons, leads to the ascending paralysis of a limb, the face, and the diaphragm over time?

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

Polio

Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)

Charcot Marie Tooth disease

8.

Identify an accurate statement about polio.

Polio is a form of paralysis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.

In polio, the causative virus kills neurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

Post-polio syndrome is a progressive weakness that appears immediately after a polio infection.

The progression of post-polio syndrome cannot be inhibited by any existing medical treatment or procedure.

9.

John meets with a serious accident while riding his bike. He is immediately rushed to a health care facility for treatment. On regaining consciousness, the doctors tell him that because of a spinal cord injury, he is now paralyzed in all four limbs. Though he is able to breathe well, he cannot move his arms or legs. Based on the information provided in this scenario, which of the following regions of John’s spinal cord is most likely injured?

The thoracic spinal cord

The region of the spinal cord below the thoracic region

The region of the spinal cord between the brain and the cervical plexus

The cervical spinal cord

10.

What term best describes the state of a patient who is suffering from a head injury and who cannot respond to his or her surroundings, but has arousal and sleep-wake cycles?

Coma

Stupor

Vegetative state

Minimally conscious state (MCS)

11.

Identify an accurate statement about Alzheimer’s disease.

Alzheimer’s disease can be easily cured through medical therapy.

Patients suffering from Alzheimer’s disease have tangles of fibers in their nerve cells and abnormal protein deposits.

Age does not affect a person’s susceptibility to Alzheimer’s disease.

The risk of Alzheimer’s disease has no connection with cardiovascular disease risk factors.

12.

After experiencing episodes of tremors and unusual rigidity in his muscles, 65-year-old Chris is brought to the hospital for a medical examination. Dr. Richards examines him carefully and gives particular attention to the way he walks. Dr. Richards describes Chris’s gait as a characteristic shuffling gait, where the muscles seem to catch and then release. The doctor calls it “cogwheel” rigidity. Based on the information provided in this scenario, what is the most possible diagnosis for Chris’s condition?

Parkinson’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Charcot Marie Tooth disease

13.

Which diagnostic imaging technique requires the highest amount of radiation exposure?

Computerized tomography

Ultra sound

Magnetic resonance imaging

X-rays

14.

Identify an accurate statement about computerized tomography (CT or CAT scan).

A CT scan can give high-resolution, three-dimensional views of cross-sectional “slices” of the body.

A CT scan typically uses sound waves to distinguish between various structures in the body.

A CT scan uses magnetic energy to produce cross-sectional images of body structures.

A CT scan typically provides a one-dimensional view of structures in the body.

15.

Elena has been admitted to a health care facility. The doctors have told her that she has a tumor in her brain. The doctors advise her to get a CT scan done, along with other investigations. Later, for a better assessment of her condition, she is asked to get an MRI done. Elena goes to the radiology department, and the doctors begin the process of the scan. However, during the scan, Elena suddenly asks them to stop the procedure midway and then refuses to complete the scan. Which of the following could be a possible reason for her hesitation?

Magnetic energy causes pain while passing through the body.

Magnetic energy can cause a burning sensation.

Closed MRI machines can trigger claustrophobia.

MRI utilizes harmful x-ray radiations.

16.

What is the normal amount of cerebral spinal fluid produced in the body in a day?

200 mL

300 mL

400 mL

500 mL

17.

Which of the following statements is true of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)?

Normal CSF is amber in color.

CSF does not play a role in the regulation of intracranial pressure.

The normal CSF cell count is 0-5/μL.

Normally, CSF is collected by inserting a needle at the level of the cervical spine.

18.

After complaining of fevers, chills, confusion, and irritability, Esmerelda is admitted to the hospital for a thorough medical examination. During diagnosis, Dr. Phil examines a sample of Esmerelda’s cerebral spinal fluid that was collected via a lumbar puncture. On analysis of the sample, he discovers that the fluid has an abnormally high level of neutrophils. Based on the information provided in this scenario, what condition is this abnormally high neutrophil count most likely to indicate?

Cerebral abscess

Alzheimer’s disease

Guillain-Barré syndrome

Multiple sclerosis

HCS 216 Week 2 Endocrine System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Endocrine System – Analyzing a Progress Note.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Endocrine System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Part 1

Using the following progress note, define the bolded terms within the chart provided.

This patient is being treated with their primary after visiting the urgent care this weekend.

Progress Note

Patient is a 45 y.o. female that presents to rule out unstable diabetes. She initially made a visit to the urgent care one day prior with complaints of excessive thirst, urination, and fatigue. Her fasting blood sugar was 350. She was treated and referred to this practice for a consult.

History: Patient has a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome, congenital hypothyroidism, benign thyroid nodule, and early menopause.

Assessment: Patient’s Accu-Check is currently 400. Her vital signs are stable. She continues to have flu-like symptoms with complaints of nausea and fatigue along with increased urination and excessive thirst.

Plan: Direct admission to South Hospital, 24-hour urine test, repeat Accu-Check, thyroid function, cortisol blood test stat. Refer to Dr. Jones, endocrinologist for consult today.

Impression: Hyperglycemia (abnormal glucose)

Jill Smith DNP

*Do not forget to include the sources for your definitions.

Part 2

Complete the following table using the information found in the Progress Note and the Internet. List the appropriate code(s) for the given medical terms and provide a justification explaining why you selected the given medical code(s).

HCS 216 Week 2 Endocrine System Poster

Create a 260- to 350-word poster that focuses on this week’s body system.

• Week Two: Endocrine

Think of your audience when writing your poster; make it informative as well as visually appealing.

Create an informative poster for your presentation.

Address the following in the poster:

• Identify the body system.
• Describe the basic structure and function of the body system.
• Explain the importance of the endocrine system to the different body systems.

  • You may choose to connect this discussion to systems learned in Anatomy & Physiology I.
  • Use information found in diagrams/charts located in this week’s readings.

• Describe two common diseases that affect the endocrine system.
• Identify the major providers who would treat a patient with the disease discussed above.
• Identify the recommended lab tests for the disease identified above.

Cite at least 2 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

HCS 216 Week 2 Knowledge Checks- Week 2

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Week 2 Knowledge Checks

1.

Which hormone secreted by the thyroid gland has the effect of decreasing blood calcium levels?

Insulin

Calcitonin

Melatonin

Thymosin

2.

Identify an accurate statement about the control of endocrine activity in the body.

Negative feedback works to increase the extent of a change in the body.

Positive feedback typically works to counteract a change in the body.

Negative feedback inhibits an endocrine organ from secreting hormones when its hormone levels rise above the set point.

The process by which control systems in the body work to bring back disrupted homeostatic values back to set point is known as positive feedback.

3.

How do neurotransmitters differ from hormones?

Neurotransmitters primarily control cell activities, whereas hormones primarily control cell excitation.

Neurotransmitters can affect multiple cells at a time, whereas hormones can affect only a single cell at a time.

Neurotransmitters can act in less than one second, whereas hormones generally take more time to act.

Neurotransmitters have to travel a considerable distance to reach their target, whereas the intended target of hormones is generally very close.

4.

Which part of the central nervous system is in direct control of the pituitary gland?

The hypothalamus

The cerebellum

The medulla oblongata

The spinal cord

5.

Identify an accurate statement about the thyroid gland.

The thyroid gland is located in the posterior portion of the neck, beneath the trachea.

The hypothalamus and the pituitary gland work together to maintain the levels of the thyroid hormones in the body through a negative feedback loop.

The thyroid-stimulating hormone that triggers the thyroid gland to produce the thyroid hormones is secreted by the hypothalamus.

Higher levels of the thyroid-stimulating hormone lead to the production of lower amounts of thyroxine by the thyroid gland.

6.

Identify the difference between the anterior pituitary and the posterior pituitary.

The posterior pituitary is known as the adenohypophysis, whereas the anterior pituitary is known as the neurohypophysis.

The posterior pituitary secretes hormones that control tissue growth, whereas the anterior pituitary secretes hormones that regulate urine production.

The hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are produced by the gland itself, whereas the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary are produced in the hypothalamus.

The posterior pituitary secretes only two hormones, whereas the anterior pituitary secretes six hormones.

7.

Which of the following is an organ that produces hormones that work to regulate the levels of blood sugar in the body?

The pancreas

The spleen

The pineal gland

The thymus

8.

Identify an accurate statement about the pineal gland.

The pineal gland is located in the anterior portion of the neck.

The hormone produced by the pineal gland is called melatonin.

The levels of the hormone produced by the pineal gland do not vary between day and night.

The pineal gland is an accessory organ of the digestive system.

9.

When Aliyah encounters a pack of snarling dogs on the street, she experiences a very intense and sudden reaction. Her breathing and heart rate increase. Her palms become sweaty, her blood pressure rises, and her mouth becomes dry. Why does this happen?

Due to the secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream.

Due to the secretion of insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream.

Due to the sudden release of mineralocorticoids into the bloodstream.

Due to the sudden release of glucocorticoids into the bloodstream.

10.

Which of the following conditions is caused by the insufficient production of aldosterone and cortisol?

Cushing’s syndrome

Addison’s disease

Grave’s disease

Gigantism

11.

Identify an accurate statement about diabetes mellitus.

Type 2 diabetes is also known as juvenile onset diabetes.

Type 2 diabetes results from the destruction of the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas by the immune system.

The kidneys of patients suffering from diabetes tend to work overtime to excrete the excess sugar from the blood.

The blood of untreated diabetics is alkaline.

12.

27-year-old Esma Gonzales arrives at the hospital for a medical check-up. She complains of experiencing tremors and weakness. On examination, Dr. Patil observes that Esma has bulging eyeballs and an irregular heartbeat. He asks her if she has been feeling unusually irritable in the recent past and if she sweats excessively. Esma confirms that she does and adds that she has also been losing weight in spite of eating well. What diagnosis is Dr. Patil most likely to make based on the information he has gathered?

Dr. Patil is most likely going to diagnose Esma with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

Dr. Patil is most likely going to diagnose Esma with Cushing’s syndrome.

Dr. Patil is most likely going to diagnose Esma with Grave’s disease.

Dr. Patil is most likely going to diagnose Esma with hypopituitarism.

13.

Which of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism?

Grave’s disease

Congenital hypothyroidism

Cushing’s syndrome

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

14.

Identify an accurate statement about hypoglycemia.

For most diabetics, hypoglycemia is a more acute problem than hyperglycemia.

Hypoglycemia is caused by abnormally high levels of glucose in the blood.

The only way to treat hypoglycemia is to avoid the consumption of sugar.

Diabetics who strictly limit their glucose intake are at a lower risk of developing hypoglycemia.

15.

Identify a difference between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism.

Hyperthyroidism is caused due to the production of abnormally low levels of thyroid hormone, while hypothyroidism is caused due to the overproduction of thyroid hormone.

People suffering from hypothyroidism tend to gain weight, while those suffering from hyperthyroidism tend to lose weight.

People suffering from hyperthyroidism tend to feel cold, while those suffering from hypothyroidism tend to feel hot.

The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Grave’s disease, while the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

16.

What is the normal concentration of glucose in urine?

1-1.5 mg/dL

1.5-2 mg/dL

0.5-1mg/dL

0-0.5 mg/dL

17.

Identify an accurate statement about testing the concentration of glucose in urine.

The presence of glucose in urine is not always regarded abnormal.

High emotional stress can result in low levels of glucose in urine.

In glucose testing, readings below 0.5 mg/dL typically indicate that a person has diabetes.

A high reabsorption rate by the kidneys may cause high readings in a urinary glucose test.

18.

Chris has been suffering from diabetes mellitus for the past four years. He suspects that his best friend, Davis, may also be diabetic. To find out, Chris lends Davis a special device that he uses to test his blood. Chris instructs Davis to prick his finger, place a drop of blood on an absorbent test strip, and insert the strip into the device for a numeric reading. Based on the information provided in this scenario, which of the following is a true statement?

The device that Davis is handling is used for blood glucose monitoring.

A high numeric reading displayed by the device will indicate low blood sugar.

Chris wants Davis to measure the concentration of creatinine in his blood.

This device is designed to indicate the amount of thyroid hormones circulating in Davis’s bloodstream.

HCS 216 Week 3 Musculoskeletal System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Musculoskeletal System – Analyzing a Progress Note.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Musculoskeletal System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Part 1

Using the following progress note, define the bolded terms within the chart provided.

This patient is being treated in a local outpatient physical therapy office.

Progress Note

Patient is a 55 y.o. male who returns for session 3/10 outpatient therapy.

History: Patient has a history of arthritis (unspecified) to the cervical spine, fibromyalgia, and osteoarthritis. Patient is 4 weeks post-operative right femur surgery following a greenstick fracture after falling on the ice. Patient had a post-operative MRI last week. Report attached.

Subjective: The patient states his pain is moderate level 4/10. He notes his function is improving and he is now ambulating with a cane.

Strength:

Adduction: 2/3

Abduction: 2/2

Knee extension: 2/2 painful

Knee flexion: 3/2 painful

Plan: Continue with physical therapy sessions as per plan.

Diagnosis: Femur shaft fracture

Julie Brush, PT

*Do not forget to include the sources for your definitions.

Part 2

Complete the following table using the information found in the Progress Note and the Internet. List the appropriate code(s) for the given medical terms and provide a justification explaining why you selected the given medical code(s).

HCS 216 Week 3 Musculoskeletal System Poster

Create a 260- to 350-word poster that focuses on this week’s body system.

• Week Three: Musculoskeletal

Think of your audience when writing your poster; make it informative as well as visually appealing.

Create an informative poster for your presentation.

Address the following in the poster:

• Identify the body system.
• Describe the basic structure and function of the body system.
• Explain the importance of the musculoskeletal system to the different body systems.

  • You may choose to connect this discussion to systems learned in Anatomy & Physiology I.
  • Use information found in diagrams/charts located in this week’s readings.

• Describe two common diseases that affect the musculoskeletal system.
• Identify the major providers that would treat a patient with the disease discussed above.
• Identify the recommended lab tests for the disease identified above.

Cite at least 2 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

HCS 216 Week 3 Knowledge Checks- Week 3

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Week 3 Knowledge Checks

1.

What term is used to describe each end of a long bone?

Epiphysis

Diaphysis

Medullary cavity

Periosteum

2.

In the context of the skeletal system, identify an accurate statement about the movement classification of joints.

Flexion occurs when a joint is straightened, and the angle between the involved bones increases.

The act of moving a body part away from the midline of the body is known as adduction.

The act of turning the sole of one foot inward in such a way that it points to the other foot is known as inversion.

Pronation occurs when the hand is turned to the point where the palm faces upward.

3.

Identify a difference between compact bone tissue and spongy bone tissue.

Spongy bone tissue forms the shafts of long bones, whereas compact bone tissue forms the ends of long bones.

Compact bone tissue is made up of bars and plate-like units called trabeculae, whereas spongy bone tissue is made up of cylindrical-shaped units called osteons.

Compact bone tissue has a dense, strong structure, whereas spongy bone tissue has a light, porous structure.

Spongy bone tissue tends to add to the overall bone weight, whereas compact bone tissue helps make bones lighter in weight.

4.

Which of the following is an example of a smooth muscle?

The biceps

The heart muscle

The stomach muscle

The triceps

5.

Identify an accurate statement about the different types of muscles in the human body.

Smooth muscles are the muscles responsible for causing the heart to contract and relax.

Skeletal muscles are the muscles responsible for facilitating the movement of air through the airways of the lungs.

Cardiac muscles are found within all organs, airways, and blood vessels in the body.

Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles; they cannot be consciously controlled.

6.

After suffering serious injuries in a car accident, Julio is advised by his doctor to stay in bed for a few months and to refrain from engaging in any form of physical activity. A few months later, after recovering completely from his injuries, Julio notices that his body has changed. His arms and legs are much thinner than before and his muscles are soft and flaccid. What could be a possible explanation for this?

Due to the lack of use, Julio’s muscles have lost their tone.

The extended period of bed rest has triggered hypertrophy in Julio’s muscles.

The extensive period of bed rest has led to an increase in the diameter of Julio’s muscles.

The car accident may have permanently damaged Julio’s skeletal muscles.

7.

How many cervical vertebrae are present in the human body?

Five

Seven

Nine

Eleven

8.

Identify an accurate statement about the bony thorax.

The thoracic cage has eight pairs of true ribs.

The xiphoid is the inferior portion of the sternum.

Rib pairs seven to twelve of the thoracic cage are the true ribs or vertebrosternal ribs.

Rib pairs five to eight of the thoracic cage are the false ribs or vertebrocostal ribs.

9.

Law enforcement officials in New Hampshire find human skeletal remains in a construction site. They suspect that the remains may have belonged to the victim of a homicide. They take the bones to the forensic department for a medical investigation. Ben, a forensic expert, is asked to conduct a preliminary examination of the bones. Ben first has to determine whether the victim was male or female. Which of the following would help him arrive at a conclusion?

A male skeleton would have a greater number of bones.

A female skeleton would have denser and thicker bones.

A male skeleton would have a broader pelvic girdle.

A female skeleton would have a greater pubic angle.

10.

Which of the following is a fibrous tissue that connects skeletal muscle to bone?

Ligament

Cartilage

Tendon

Fascia

11.

Identify an accurate statement about synovial joints.

Saddle joints can perform all types of movements, including rotation.

Hinge joints are found in the knuckles of the fingers.

Hips and shoulders have ball-and-socket joints.

Gliding joints can only rotate.

12.

Which of the following is a similarity between ligaments and tendons?

Both ligaments and tendons cannot withstand stress.

Both ligaments and tendons help connect bone to bone.

Both ligaments and tendons help connect bone to muscle.

Both ligaments and tendons are types of connective tissue.

13.

What is the name of the condition that is characterized by a reduction in bone density after 50 years of age or especially during menopause in women?

Osteoporosis

Osteoarthritis

Gout

Rheumatoid arthritis

14.

Identify an accurate statement about bone fractures.

A comminuted fracture is a fine fracture that does not completely break the bone.

Greenstick fractures occur more often in adults than in children.

In a compound fracture, the bone is pushed out through the skin.

A hairline fracture occurs when the bone is crushed to such an extent that it becomes fragmented.

15.

For the past few months, Maria has been experiencing pain in the joints of her hands and feet. Her joints have become unusually stiff and swollen, and the pain now appears to be spreading to her elbows and knees as well. She finally decides to visit a health care facility for a thorough medical examination. The doctor conducts a detailed examination and asks Maria to take some tests. On analyzing the test results, the doctor tells her that she is suffering from an autoimmune disease that is affecting the connective tissue in her joints. From which condition is Maria most likely suffering?

Septic arthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoporosis

Gout

16.

What is the general term used to describe a muscle disease or disorder?

Neuropathy

Myopathy

Muscle strain

Bursitis

17.

Identify an accurate statement about fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS).

Fibromyalgia syndrome is an acute pain syndrome that can last up to a week.

The majority of fibromyalgia patients are men.

Fibromyalgia syndrome is typically characterized by muscular inflammation.

There is no set treatment for fibromyalgia syndrome.

18.

Nine-year-old Johnathan has been experiencing muscle weakness since birth, which has been increasing progressively. The doctors have examined and diagnosed him with an incurable genetic disease that typically affects the muscles. The doctors are now advising him to use a wheel chair to move around. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which condition is Johnathan most likely suffering?

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

Myasthenia Gravis

Tetanus

Fibromyalgia syndrome

19.

Which of the following would show up as the most radiolucent region in an x-ray?

Bone

Lungs

Metal

Tissue

20.

Identify an accurate statement about x-rays.

Bones have the highest density and absorb x-rays the most.

Water allows x-rays to pass through it more easily than air.

Low-density areas typically show up on an x-ray film as dark regions.

An x-ray provides a two-dimensional view of a specific area.

21.

Cindy has been admitted to the oncology department of a healthcare facility. The doctor suspects that she might have a tumor growing in her left lung, behind her heart. He directs her to the diagnostic department and instructs a technician, Larry, to take an x-ray of her chest. Larry asks Cindy to stand very close to an x-ray film, with her back facing the x-ray machine. The x-ray machine is positioned approximately six feet away from where Cindy is standing. Larry asks Cindy to shift her left side toward the film and to rotate her shoulders forward before taking the x-ray. Based on the information provided in this scenario, what view is Larry using to capture an image of the tumor on the x-ray?

Anteroposterior view

Posteroanterior view

Anteroposterior view in conjunction with a left lateral view

Posteroanterior view in conjunction with a left lateral view

HCS 216 Week 4 Reproductive System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Reproductive System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Reproductive System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Part 1

Using the following progress note, define the bolded terms within the chart provided.

This patient is being assessed in the office by her OB-GYN.

Progress Note

Patient is a 25 y.o. female that presents for treatment of endometriosis. She has severe dysmenorrhea with an abnormal menstrual cycle for 3 years. There is a history of one pregnancy which was ectopic which did not require removal of the fallopian tubes. An ultrasound of the ovaries was performed 1 month prior to rule out ovarian cysts which was negative. Pregnancy test is negative.

Plan: repeat ultrasound, estradiol and progesterone levels. Will discuss possibility of uterine biopsy and surgical referral.

Impression: endometriosis

James Jones DO

*Do not forget to include the sources for your definitions.

Part 2

Complete the following table using the information found in the Progress Note and the Internet. List the appropriate code(s) for the given medical terms and provide a justification explaining why you selected the given medical code(s).

HCS 216 Week 4 Reproductive System Poster

Create a 260- to 350-word poster that focuses on this week’s body system.

• Week Four: Reproductive

Think of your audience when writing your poster; make it informative as well as visually appealing.

Create an informative poster for your presentation.

Address the following in the poster:

• Identify the body system.
• Describe the basic structure and function of the body system.
• Explain the importance of the reproductive system to the different body systems.

  • You may choose to connect this discussion to systems learned in Anatomy & Physiology I.
  • Use information found in diagrams/charts located in this week’s reading.

• Describe two common diseases that affect the reproductive system.
• Identify the major providers who would treat a patient with the disease discussed above.
• Identify the recommended lab tests for the disease identified above.

Cite at least 2 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

HCS 216 Week 4 Knowledge Checks- Week 4

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Week 4 Knowledge Checks

1.

Which of the following parts of the female mammary gland produces milk?

The areola

The alveoli

The ampulla

The adipose tissue

2.

Identify an accurate statement about the hormonal control of male reproduction.

Before birth, human chorionic gonadotropin secreted by the placenta inhibits the developing testes of the embryo from secreting testosterone.

Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone boost testosterone secretion after puberty in a major positive feedback loop.

The testes secrete the maximum amount of testosterone in the period between birth and puberty.

Puberty in males is characterized by a radical reduction in the amount of testosterone secreted by the testes.

Correct :

3.

Identify a difference between the luteal phase and the proliferative phase.

The time between the end of menses and ovulation is known as the proliferative phase, while the time between ovulation and menses is known as the luteal phase.

The corpus luteum develops in the ovary during the proliferative phase, while the follicles start maturating in the ovary during the luteal phase.

The luteal phase is also known as the follicular phase, while the proliferative phase is also known as the secretory phase.

The proliferative phase is characterized by the secretion of the hormone progesterone, while the luteal phase is characterized by the secretion of the hormone estrogen.

• Female Anatomy
• The Uterus

4.

Which of the following anatomical structures serves as passageway for the egg to travel to the uterus from the ovary?

The mesovarium

The fallopian tube

The vagina

The cervix

Correct :

5.

In the context of the female reproductive system, identify an accurate statement about the structure of the uterus.

The uterus is located anterior to the urinary bladder in the pelvic cavity.

The narrow, inferior portion of the uterus is called the isthmus.

The innermost layer of the uterus wall is known as the myometrium.

The lateral cervical ligaments help attach the uterus to the lateral pelvic walls of the pelvic cavity.

6.

Which of the following is a difference between the endometrium and the myometrium of the uterus wall?

The endometrium forms the outermost layer of the uterine wall, while the myometrium forms the innermost layer of the uterine wall.

The endometrium is composed of columnar epithelium and secretory cells, while the myometrium is primarily composed of smooth muscle.

The endometrium is never replaced, whereas the myometrium is shed and regenerated every 28 days.

The endometrium receives its blood supply from arcuate arteries, whereas the myometrium receives its blood supply from radial arteries.

The endometrium is composed of columnar epithelium and secretory cells, while the myometrium is composed of smooth muscle. The myometrium is the middle layer of the

7.

Which type of epithelium makes up the seminal vesicles?

Simple squamous epithelium

Simple cuboidal epithelium

Transitional epithelium

Psuedostratified epithelium

8.

In the context of the male reproductive system, identify an accurate statement about the testes.

The abnormal collection of fluid within the testes is termed cryptorchidism.

The testes migrate into the scrotum during the first three months of embryonic development.

Each testis is composed of 250 to 300 wedges called lobules.

The serous membrane that surrounds each testis is called the adventitia.

9.

Identify a similarity between the male reproductive system and the female reproductive system.

Both the male reproductive system and the female reproductive system have the same number of accessory genitalia.

In both the female reproductive system and the male reproductive system, the urethra acts both as a channel for excreting urine and releasing gametes.

In both the female reproductive system and the male reproductive system, the primary genitalia are external.

Both the female reproductive system and the male reproductive system have a pair of gonads.

10.

Which condition is most likely a result of the incessant proliferation, bleeding, and decay of endometrial tissue in the pelvic and abdominal cavities?

Endometrial carcinoma

Endometriosis

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Vaginitis

11.

Identify an accurate statement about menstrual disorders.

When menstruation is difficult and involves painful cramping, it is known as dysmenorrhea.

Infection by staphylococcus aureus is the main cause of polycystic ovarian syndrome.

Premenstrual syndrome is typically characterized by symptoms associated with the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle.

GnRH agonists are always administered to treat mild premenstrual syndrome.

12.

29-year-old Esma has been having irregular menstrual cycles. She and her husband have not been able to conceive a child. Suspecting that she may be infertile, Esma visits Dr. Grey for a medical check-up. On examination, Dr. Grey notes that Esma is overweight, has excess facial hair, and is showing signs of baldness. He also discovers that she is resistant to insulin and experiences hypertension. Imaging and blood tests reveal that Esma’s gonads are abnormally large and that she has increased blood levels of testosterone and estrogen, but very low levels of progesterone. What is the most probable diagnosis for Esma’s condition?

Toxic shock syndrome

Mastitis

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Endometriosis

13.

What is the most common nonskin form of cancer that affects American men?

Breast cancer

Prostrate cancer

Brain cancer

Liver cancer

14.

Identify an accurate statement about erectile dysfunction.

Apomorphine is a drug that can help improve the symptoms of erectile dysfunction.

Erectile dysfunction is relatively common among men between the ages of 20 and 35.

Erectile dysfunction tends to decrease with age.

A person is usually diagnosed with erectile dysfunction if he is unable to maintain an erection over a period of one to two weeks.

15.

Mario, a 65-year-old Hispanic male, visits Dr. Lyra for a medical examination. He complains that he often feels the urge to urinate and that this urge often disrupts his sleep at night. He tells Dr. Lyra that his urine stream is weak and that he experiences the sensation of incomplete voiding whenever he urinates. Dr. Lyra conducts a thorough medical examination and instructs Mario to undergo some laboratory tests. The results of the tests rule out urinary conditions such as urinary tract infection, diabetes mellitus, and an overactive bladder. Lyra suspects that the enlargement of a certain gland surrounding Mario’s urethra might be causing these symptoms. Based on Dr. Lyra’s suspicions, from which condition is Mario most likely suffering?

Cryptorchidism

Hydrocele

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Erectile dysfunction disorder

16.

Which type of medical imaging technique is based on the same principles as that of SONAR or fish finders in fishing boats?

X-ray

Magnetic resonance imaging

Computerized tomography

Ultrasound

17.

Which of the following statements is true about ultrasound?

Ultrasound imaging involves a high degree of radiation exposure.

Ultrasound imaging uses magnetic energy to produce cross-sectional images of structures within the body.

Ultrasound procedures often trigger feelings of claustrophobia in patients.

Ultrasound imaging is a lot more sensitive than a regular x-ray.

18.

Angelina is in her fourth month of pregnancy. Her obstetrician, Dr. Keller, uses a certain imaging technique to monitor the development of Angelina’s fetus. This technique does not involve any radiation exposure and allows Dr. Keller to view the movements of the fetus in real time. Which of the following medical imaging techniques is Dr. Keller employing in this scenario?

Magnetic resonance imaging

Computerized tomography

Ultrasound

X-ray

19.

Which of the following statements is true of a mammogram?

Typically, women under the age of 30 are required to get a mammogram done at least once every year.

Annual mammograms are typically recommended for women who have a strong family history of breast cancer.

Older women receive false positive mammogram results for breast cancer more often than younger women do.

A mammogram is an ultrasound of the upper thoracic area.

20.

Melinda visits her local gynecologist, Dr. Grey, for a medical check-up. During the examination, Dr. Grey collects scrapings from inside Melinda’s cervix. On enquiry, Dr. Grey tells Melinda that he requires a sample of her cervical cells for a certain test that detects the presence of cancer. What procedure is Dr. Grey most likely referring to in this scenario?

Pap test

Litmus test

Prenatal test

Prostate-specific antigen test

21.

Which of the following helps in diagnosing endometriosis with certainty?

Mammogram

Urine testing

Laparoscopy with biopsy examination

Pap test with microscopic examination

HCS 216 Week 5 Dermatological System – Progress Note Analysis

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Dermatological System – Progress Note Analysis

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Dermatological System – Analyzing a Progress Note

Part 1

Using the following progress note, define the bolded terms within the chart provided.

This patient is being seen by a local dermatologist.

Progress Note

Patient is a 40 y.o. female who presents for an annual skin examination. Patient has a history of excessive sun exposure at age 20-25. She had a basal cell skin cancer removed from the nose in 2010. Total body exam performed. There is evidence of eczema to the hands. Her nail beds are pink and non-discolored. She uses a steroidal topical ointment as needed. Patient sees an allergist monthly. Her last scratch test was positive for multiple environmental allergens. There is slight contact dermatitis to the legs. There is noted generalized acne to the face. There are a few skin tags to the skin folds of the abdomen for which she would like to have excised. A 3mm discolored growth is noted to the right upper shoulder.

Plan: Return for excision and biopsy of lesion to the right shoulder. Removal of skin tags.

Impression: Unspecified disorder of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, skin tags (hypertrophic and atrophic condition of the skin)

Lisa Bross, MD

*Do not forget to include the sources for your definitions.

Part 2

Complete the following table using the information found in the Progress Note and the Internet. List the appropriate code(s) for the given medical terms and provide a justification explaining why you selected the given medical code(s).

HCS 216 Week 5 Final Progress Note Analysis

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Final Progress Note Analysis

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Final – Analyzing a Progress Note

Using the following progress note, identify the body system that the bolded terms represent.

This patient has admitted herself into the ER to be assessed for a burn.

Progress Note

Patient is a 48 y.o. female who is accompanied by her spouse with complaint of a “burn to the arm”. She was cooking at home and experienced a small grease fire. She was able to contain the fire; however, grease splattered on her right hand and forearm. She noted running her arm under water and wrapping her arm and hand in a clean kitchen towel. Complaints of extreme pain rates level 10/10 to the entire burn area.

History of Present Illness

Patient has a history of polycystic kidney disease resulting in frequent UTI’s. She is currently on Macrobid for a recent infection. History of hypertension. Blood pressure is 162/90. It is elevated at this time due to pain levels. History of anemia for which she takes daily iron tablets. Right forearm with multiple blisters and apparent epidermal loss. Right hand reddened with multiple blisters, epidermal loss, and multiple sites. Patient has a history of IBS. History of hypothyroidism and hypoglycemia. Patient is taking Thyroxin and checks her blood sugars regularly at home. History of peripheral neuropathy and vertigo. She stated she has intermittent feeling or sensation to her fingertips. She notes signs of vertigo when she changes positions quickly sitting to standing. Patient has a history of emphysema. Patient is on home oxygen at night. Pulse ox is 96% on room air. History of osteoporosis. Patient is in early menopause. Her next bone density is scheduled for 6 months.

Impression/Plan

1. 2nd degree burn to the forearm (943.2), burn to the right hand multiple sites (944.8), E895 (Accident caused by controlled fire in private residence). Silvadine ointment wrap applied to the right hand and forearm.
2. Uncontrolled pain: Tylenol#3 administered.
3. Plan to admit to medical surgical floor for management of wounds and pain control: 24-hour observation. Assess vital signs every 4 hours, continue home medications, oxygen 1 liter at night, Accu-Check fasting and at night, Tylenol #3 every 4-6 hours 1-2 tablets as needed for pain, lab to draw a CBC and chemistry level. Consult Dr. Jackson in Dermatology for further orders.

HCS 216 Week 5 Reflection- Importance of Coding and Billing

Write a 350- to 700-word reflection to the following question: What is the importance of coding and billing correctly?

Include the following in your response:

• Your understanding of the material covered in Anatomy & Physiology I and Anatomy & Physiology II
• Your understanding of the ICD-10 codes

• • Number of codes
  • Detail of the codes

• Impact of coding and billing on health care facilities and patients

Format your summary according to APA guidelines.

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

HCS 216 Week 5 Knowledge Checks- Week 5

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Week 5 Knowledge Checks

1.

Identify an accurate statement about melanin.

Melanin is produced by cells located deep inside the hypodermal layer of the skin.

There is no relation between the amount of melanin produced and skin color.

When melanin is evenly distributed across the skin, it forms freckles.

Melanin is synthesized by melanocytes only in areas where it is needed.

2.

What is the name of the fibrous protein that fills up dead epidermal cells as they are pushed to the surface of the skin?

Collagen

Keratin

Actin

Myosin

3.

How do sebaceous glands differ from sweat glands?

Sebaceous glands become active only at puberty, whereas sweat glands are active in people of all ages.

Sebaceous glands are located in the epidermal layer of the skin, whereas sweat glands are located in the hypodermal layer of the skin.

Sebaceous glands are distributed over the entire surface of the skin, whereas sweat glands are only found in hair-covered areas.

Sebaceous glands help retain moisture in the body by preventing the skin from drying out, whereas sweat glands contribute to an average fluid loss of 500 mL per day.

4.

Which of the following can be regarded as the largest organ in the human body?

The brain

The liver

The heart

The skin

5.

In the context of the layers of the skin, identify a difference between the epidermis and the dermis.

The epidermis contains nerve cells, whereas the dermis does not contain any nerve cells.

The epidermis contains many blood vessels called capillaries, whereas the dermis does not contain any blood vessels.

The epidermis is the innermost layer of the skin, whereas the dermis is the outermost layer.

The epidermis does not have any muscular tissue, whereas the dermis contains involuntary muscles.

6.

Identify an accurate statement about the epidermal layer of the skin.

The epidermis is made up of many layers of stratified squamous epithelium.

The epidermis is highly vascular and has a rich nerve supply.

The cells of the epidermal layer of the skin are not continuously replaced.

Melanocytes are not present in the epidermal layer of the skin.

7.

9-year-old Josh runs outside to play in the snow. The temperature outside is low, and though Josh is wearing a sweater, in a few minutes, he begins to feel very cold. With regard to the role of the integumentary system in temperature regulation, what changes are most likely to take place in Josh’s body in response to these external conditions?

Josh’s body will signal the blood vessels in his skin to increase in diameter.

Vasoconstriction will take place, which will force blood away from Josh’s skin back toward the core of his body.

Vasodilation will take place, which will force the blood in Josh’s body to rise to the surface of his skin.

The arrector pili in Josh’s skin will relax, and the hairs on his skin will stop standing up.

8.

Identify an accurate statement about the role of the integumentary system in the regulation of body temperature.

The arrector pili in the skin relax in response to low environmental temperatures.

Sweat glands in the skin become more active as temperatures decrease.

Vasoconstriction takes place under cold conditions and forces blood away from the surface of the skin.

The body signals the blood vessels in the skin to increase in diameter when temperatures decrease.

9.

Which of the following occurs in response to high environmental temperatures?

Vasodilation

Vasoconstriction

The contraction of arrector pili in the skin

A decrease in the diameter of blood vessels

10.

What is the general term used to describe the highly contagious fungal infection that is commonly known as athlete’s foot?

Tinea cruris

Tinea corporis

Tinea unguium

Tinea pedis

11.

Identify an accurate statement about infections of the skin.

Genital herpes is a skin infection caused by the herpes simplex type 1 virus.

Warts on the skin are caused by the bacterium staphylococcus.

Cellulitis is a condition that results in the inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue.

Warts that are found in areas around the genitals are known as plantar warts.

12.

15-year-old Stephanie has been experiencing severe itching in the folds of her skin, especially in the areas around her groin, under her arms, around her wrists, and under her breasts. In a few days, she notices the formation of pustules and vesicles in the affected areas of her skin. On consulting a dermatologist, she is told that her skin has been infected by a tiny mite, and she is given a specially formulated cream, which can kill the mites on application. Based on the information provided in this scenario, identify the condition from which Stephanie is most likely suffering.

Scabies

Acne

Common warts

Tinea corporis

13.

Identify an accurate statement about burns.

A fourth-degree burn is a partial-thickness burn that damages only the epidermis.

A second-degree burn penetrates to the bone and destroys muscles and tendons.

A first-degree burn typically affects the entire epidermis and a portion of the dermis.

A third-degree burn is classified as a full-thickness burn as it affects all three layers of the skin.

14.

What type of burn causes a victim to feel no pain at the affected site?

A first-degree burn

A second-degree burn

A third-degree burn

A fourth-degree burn

15.

While on a camping trip, an intoxicated man accidently trips and falls into a huge bonfire. By the time his friends rescue him, he receives extensive burns on both of his arms, his head, and his neck. Using the “rule of nines,” calculate the percentage of burns the man may have received.

27%

36%

45%

54%

16.

John has had a mole on the upper portion of his back ever since he was a child. Over the past few weeks, John has noticed that the mole on his back has been increasing in size and changing in shape and color. Concerned with the sudden changes, John consults Dr. Rick, a dermatologist, about his problem. Dr. Rick examines the mole and orders an immediate biopsy. On receiving the results of the biopsy, Dr. Rick tells John that his mole needs to be surgically removed immediately and that he may even need to undergo chemotherapy. Based on the information provided in this scenario, from which condition is John most likely suffering?

Malignant melanoma

Cellulitis

Basal cell carcinoma

Seborrheic keratosis

17.

Identify an accurate statement about basal cell carcinoma.

Basal cell carcinoma begins as a fluid-filled vesicle.

Basal cell carcinoma only affects the scalp and lower lip.

Basal cell carcinoma begins as a papule that enlarges in size to form an ulcer surrounded by a whitish border.

Basal cell carcinoma may appear as a black or brown irregular patch on the skin that rapidly grows in size and spreads to surrounding areas.

18.

Which of the following is a type of cancer that typically occurs on the scalp and the lower lip?

Basal cell carcinoma

Squamous carcinoma

Malignant melanoma

Seborrheic keratosis